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Given the many ‘revolutions’ that were mentioned, why are the earliest textual critics less than enthusiastic when speaking of their support for the textual evidence for the text of the New Testament? It seems that there are two things that are misunderstood in the response to this question. The first is that it is not all that easy to determine exactly what the textual critics were referring to. The second is that even if we could agree that textual critics mean something by what they are saying, what exactly did they mean? How can we decide between two “revolutions” when there are so many different theories that can even be labeled a revolution? Furthermore, people usually know where a revolutionary event occurred and what the date was, but they usually do not know what that revolution actually was about. One can find many different events that were labeled as a revolution of a given situation, but those events were not connected in any way to the revolution in hand (a word that does not exist). Which revolution in history is the one we are talking about when we are talking about the textual criticism of the New Testament?

A revolution is a change that was announced beforehand and was a success. Examples include the French Revolution, the American Revolution and the Industrial Revolution. People typically know what to expect when they talk about the French Revolution, when they talk about the American Revolution, and when they talk about the Industrial Revolution. This is because the things that were supposed to be expected happened and people did not expect it.

I have listed many changes that people believe occurred in the history of the New Testament in my previous post on the various theories of textual criticism. My contention is that it would be just as easy to name events in the history of the New Testament that all the other textual

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